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2014-2015/ JEE Advance/ P-1/Pg-1
BATCH
TARGET
ABC Classes
A BRILLIANT COMPANION
CODE
003
JEE ADVANCE 2015
Date : 20-04-2015
AWAIT INSTRUCTIONS FROM THE INVIGILATOR
INSTRUCTIONS :
A.
1.
2.
3.
4.
5.
6.
7.
8.
B.
9.
10.
11.
12.
13.
14.
C.
15.
16.
17.
18.
19.
Duration : 3 Hours
Max. Marks : 225
PAPER -1
General :
This Question Paper contains 60 questions.
The question paper CODE is printed on the right hand top corner on this sheet of this booklet.
No additional sheets will be provided for rough work.
Blank paper, clipboard, log tables, slide rules, calculators, cellular phones, pagers and electronic gadgets in
any form are not allowed.
The answer sheet, a machine-gradable Optical Marks Reader (OMR), provided separately.
Do not Tamper / multilate the OMR or this booklet.
Do not break the seats of the question-paper booklet before instructed to do so by the invigilators.
Write your Name, Roll No. and Sign in the space provide on the back page of this booklet.
Filling the bottom-half of the OMR :
Use only Black ball point pen only for filling the OMR. Do not use Gel / Ink / Felt pen as it might
smudge the OMR.
Write your Roll no. in the boxes given at the top left corner of your OMR with black ball point pen. Also,
darken the corresponding bubbles with Black ball point pen only. Also fill your roll no on the back side of your
OMR in the space provided (if the OMR is both side printed).
Fill your Paper Code as mentioned on the Test Paper and darken the corresponding bubble with Black ball
point pen.
If student does not fill his/her roll no. and paper code correctly and properly, then his/her marks will not be
displayed and 5 marks will be deducted (paper wise) from the total.
Since it is not possible to erase and correct pen filled bubble, you are advised to be extremely careful while
darken the bubble corresponding to your answer.
Neither try to erase / rub / scratch the option nor make the Cross (X) mark on the option once filled. Do not
scribble, smudge, cut, tear, or wrinkle the OMR. Do not put any stray marks or whitener anywhere on the
OMR.
If there is any discrepancy between the written data and the bubbled data in your OMR, the bubble data will
be taken as final.
Filling the bottom-half of the OMR :
The question paper consists of 3 parts (Chemistry , Mathematics & Physics). Each part consists of
Three Sections.
For each question in Section I, you will be awarded 3 marks if you darken only the bubble corrresponding
to the correct answer and zero mark if no bubbles are darkened. No negative marks will be awarded for
incorrect answers in this section.
For each question in Section II, you will be awarded 5 marks if you darken only the bubble corresponding
to the correct answer and zero mark if no bubbles are darkened & minus one (–1) marks will be awarded
for incorrect answers in this section.
For each question in Section III, you will be awarded 3 marks if you darken only the bubble corrresponding
to the correct answer and zero mark if no bubbles are darkened. No negative marks will be awarded for
incorrect answers in this section.
For each question in Section IV, you will be awarded 4 marks if you darken only the bubble corrresponding
to the correct answer and zero mark if no bubbles are darkened & minus one (–1) marks will be awarded
for incorrect answers in this section.
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2014-2015/ JEE Advance/ P-1/Pg-2
PART-I : CHEMISTRY
SECTION-I
Single Correct Choice Type
This section contains 5 multiple choice questions. Each question has four choices (a), (b), (c) and (d) out of
which ONLY ONE is correct.
1.
20 mL of 0.1 M HO
COOH (pKa = 5)
reacts with 20 mL 0.025 M Ca(OH) 2 solution, what will be pH of final solution ?
(A) 4.7
(B) 7
(C) 5
(D) None of these
2.
The correct order of equivalent conductance at infinite dilution of LiCl, NaCl and KCl is
(A) LiCl < NaCl > KCl
(C) NaCl > KCl > LiCl
3.
(B) KCl > NaCl > LiCl
(D) LiCl > KCl > NaCl
HCl
CH2 
H
CH3
Total no. of Markownikoff’s products in above reaction is
(A) 1
(B) 3
(C) 2
(D) 4
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4.
The Eo of the following hald cell reaction at 298 K
Ag(NH 3 ) 2
A+ + e –
Ag(NH 3 ) 2
5.
Ag + 2NH3
E oAg  / Ag  0.80V
Ag
Ag+ + 2NH3
(A) 0.373 V
(B) 0.866 V
(C) 0.591 V
In the reaction
AB2(l) + X2(g)
K= 6 × 10–8
(D) None of these
AX2(g) + BX2(g)
H = –270 kcal/mol of AB2(l)
The enthalpy of formation of AX2(g) and BX2(g) are in ratio 4 : 3 and having opposite sign. The value of
H of (AB2 (l)) kcal/mol
(A) H of (AX 2 )  96 kcal/mol
(B) H of (BX 2 )  480 kcal/mol
(C) Kp = Kc and H of (AX 2 ) = + 480 kcal/mol; H of (BX 2 ) = – 360 kcal/mol
(D) None of the above
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2014-2015/ JEE Advance/ P-1/Pg-4
SECTION-II
Multiple Correct Choice Type
This section contains 4 multiple choice questions. Each question has four choices (a), (b), (c) and (d) out
of which ONE ORE MORE is correct.
6.
Which of the following are incorrect ?
(A) Order of heat of hydrogenation
C–C=C–C–C–C=C–C<C–C–C=C–C=C–C–C
(B) Order of heat of combustion
>
>
>
(C) Order of stability of carbocation
+
+
>
>
N
+
N
N
(D) Order of heat of combustion cis-1, 4-bis-(t-butyl) cyclohexane < Trans-1, 4-bis(t-butyl)
cyclohexane.
7.
For the given reversible endothermic reactions
Reaction I
Reaction II Reaction III
A
B A
C B
C
Equilibrium constants are K1, K2 and K3 respectively Select the correct statement (s).
(A) H is highest for reaction III
(B) Concentration of B increases with increase in temperature at constant volume.
1
(C) The mole fraction of A at equilibrium is 1  K  K
1
(D) With increase in temperature the ratio
2
[B]
decreases.
[C]
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2014-2015/ JEE Advance/ P-1/Pg-5
8.
Select the incorrect statements of adjacent bond angle.
(A) In CF2 and OF2, OF2 has higher bond angle
(B) PF4 and PF4o , PF4o has higher bond angle
(C) ClF4 and BF3, ClF3 has lower bond angle
(D) NH3 and PH3 both have same bond angle
9.
Which of the following complexes are diamagnetic ?
(A) [AuCl]4–
(B) [Co(H2O)6]3+
(C) [CoF6]3–
(D) [Co(CO)4]–
Space For Rough Work
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2014-2015/ JEE Advance/ P-1/Pg-6
SECTION-III
(Paragraph type)
This section contains 2 paragraphs. Each paragraph has 2 multiple choice questions, each question has
four choices (a), (b), (c) and (d) out of which ONLY ONE is correct.
Paragraph for Q.no 10 & 11
O3
Zn/H2O
P1
KOH
KOH
NH
2 4
P2 EtONa
P3
P5
N2H4
H2O2
Reagent X
NH3
P4
(ii) H2/Pd
P6
10.
Which of the following statement is correct about P4 ?
(A) It will not give yellow/orange or red colour with 2, 4-DNP
(B) It will give Liberman’s nitroso test
(C) It will give Bielstien test
(D) It will not give Fehling test
11.
Which of the following reaction will be useful for conversion of P3 into P4 ?
(A) Tischenko reaction
(B) Mrrewein Pondorff Verely reduction
(C) Openaur oxidation
(D) Clemmenson’s reduction
Paragraph for Q.no 12 & 13
When two compounds ACl3 and DCl3 of two elements A and D are mixed together a compound ADCl6
is formed. Structural analysis showed that ADCl6 is an ionic compound. Given that DCl3 is trigonal planar
and ACl3 is trigonal pyramidal predict the shape of the anion.
12.
If anion has see-saw shape then shape of cation formed is
(A) Linear
(B) bent
(C) pentagonal bipyramidal
(D) trigonal planar
13.
If shape of anion is tetrahedral then shape of cation formed is
(A) tetrahedral
(B) bent
(C) linear
(D) none of these
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2014-2015/ JEE Advance/ P-1/Pg-7
SECTION-IV
(Single integer type)
This section contains 7 questions. This answer to each question is single-digit integer, ranging from 0 to 9.
The correct digit below the question number in the ORS is to be bubbled.
14.
How many total number of structural isomers of C4H6Cl2 are possible having cyclic structures ?
15.
In Mohr’s method, solution of Cl– is titrated against standard AgNO3. During the titration, a small quantity
of K2CrO4 solution is added as indicator. As AgCl is less soluble than Ag2CrO4, the added Ag+ reacts first
with Cl– than with CrO 24  . At the equivalence point, when Cl– is precipitate quantitatively as AgCl, the
slight excess of Ag+ reacts with CrO 24  to give intensely red precipitate of Ag2CrO4. 50.0 mL of 0.1 MCl–
solution is titrated against 0.1 M standard AgNO3. What must be the theoretical molar concentration of
CrO 24  in the solution so that Ag2CrO4 will start precipitating at the equivalence-point ?
Given,
Ksp(AgCl) = 10–10 M2 ; Ksp(Ag2CrO4) = 4 × 10–12 M3
[Fill your answer by multiplying it with 102.]
16.
The number of total possible stereo isomers for [Pd(NH2 – CH(CH3) – CO2–)2]o is ......
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2014-2015/ JEE Advance/ P-1/Pg-8
17.
How many different planes of symmetry are present in the following compound ?
18.
Heat
3B2 H 6  6NH 3 
 3X 
 2Y  12H 2 . In the anionic part of the intermediate X the covalency of
the central atom is ........
19.
How many types of aldehydes or ketones can be produced by the following reaction ?
20.
A flask ‘N’ gas molecules out of which
N
N
molecules are moving at Z ms–1,
at Y ms–1 and the
10
30
remaining ones are moving at X ms–1. If rms velocity of the gas is 3.89 ms–1 under same conditions. What
is X ?
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2014-2015/ JEE Advance/ P-1/Pg-9
PART-II : MATHEMATICS
SECTION-I
Single Correct Choice Type
This section contains 5 multiple choice questions. Each question has four choices (a), (b), (c) and (d) out of
which ONLY ONE is correct.
21.
If f(x) = x11 + x9 – x7 + x3 + 1 and f(sin– 1(sin 8)) = ,  is a constant the f(tan– 1(tan 8)) is equal to
(a) 
(b)  – 2
(c)  + 2
(d) 2 – 
22.
From a point R(5, 8) two tangents RP and RQ are drawn to a gvein circle S = 0 whose radius is 5.
If circumference of the triangle PQR is (2, 3), then the equation of circle S = 0 is
(a) x2 + y2 + 2x + 4y – 20 = 0
(b) x2 + y2 + x + 2y – 10 = 0
(c) x2 + y2 – x – 2y – 20 = 0
(d) x2 + y2 – 4x – 6y – 12 = 0
23.
1 
1 3
4
3
2
If A  
then a matrix B such that ( A  10 A  22 A  16 A  2 I ) B    is

 2
 2 4
1
(a)  
1
24.
In a ABC, B 
(a)
25.
0
(c)  
1 
2
(b)  
2
2
3
1 
(d)  
0


and C  . Let D divide BC internally in the ratio 1 : 3 then sin(BAD )  ......
3
4
sin(CAD )
(b)
(c)
6
3
2
(d)
1
6
Point (– 1, 4) is translated by 5 2 units parallel to the line 2x + 2y + 3 = 0. Let Q be its new position then
the image of Q w.r.t. to the line 2x + 2y + 3 = 0
(a) (0, – 6)
(b) (– 4, – 2)
 21 9 
, 
(c) 
 2 2
(d) (– 6, 0)
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2014-2015/ JEE Advance/ P-1/Pg-10
SECTION-II
Multiple Correct Choice Type
This section contains 4 multiple choice questions. Each question has four choices (a), (b), (c) and (d) out
of which ONE ORE MORE is correct.
26.
Given two circle, S1 : x2 + y2 – 4x – 2y + 4 = 0, S2 : x2 + y2 – 12x – 8y + 36 = 0 then equation of common
tangents between two circle is /are
(a) 4x + 3y – 16 = 0 (b) 7y – 24x – 16 = 0 (c) 7y – 24y + 16 = 0 (d) y = 0
27.
If the straight lines
28.
In the x-y plane there are two straight lines L1 : x – y + 1 = 0, L2 : x + 3y = 3. Let Pi (i = 1, 2) be the plane
parallel to z axis containing the line Li (i = 1, 2). A plane x + y + z = 2 cuts P1 and P2 along two lines which
makes angle  with each other then.
x 1 y 1 z
x 1 y 1 z

 are coplanar, then the plane(s) containing

 and
5
2
k
2
k
2
these two lines is/are
(a) y + 2z = – 1
(b) y + z = – 1
(c) y – z = – 1
(d) y – 2z = – 1
(a) | cos  |
1
5
(b) | cos  |
(d) line of intersection of P1 and P2 be r  ˆj  tkˆ
(c) all the three planes are concurrent
29.
Suppose  and  are roots of 4sin
(a) tan(   ) 
24
7
3
7
x
x 1
x
 3cos  cosec then
2
2 2
2
(b) tan(   )  
24
7
(c) sin(   ) 
7
25
  
(d) cos 
 2
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 3

 5
2014-2015/ JEE Advance/ P-1/Pg-11
SECTION-III
(Paragraph type)
This section contains 2 paragraphs. Each paragraph has 2 multiple choice questions, each question has
four choices (a), (b), (c) and (d) out of which ONLY ONE is correct.
Paragraph for (Q. No. 30 to 31)
n
S n   Tr
r 1
Sn  sum of n terms of sequence
Tr  rth terms of sequence
As change Tr in difference form of type. Tr = Vr – Vr – 1 or Vr – Vr + 1
Sn = T1 + T2 + T3 + ..... + Tn
= Vn – V0 or V1 – Vn + 1
30.
31.
If Tr  1 
1
1
then S2000 is equal to

2
r
(r  1) 2
(a) 2001 
1
2000
(b) 2001 
1
2001
(c) 2000 
1
2001
(d) 2002 
1
2001
If Tr 
(a) 10
r4  r2 1
and
r4  r
n
675
then the value of n is equal to
26
r 1
(b) 15
(c) 25
T
r

(d) 30
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2014-2015/ JEE Advance/ P-1/Pg-12
Paragraph for (Q. No. 32 to 33)
Let P(x) be a polynomial such that P(– 1) = 10, P(1) = – 6 and P(x) has maxima at x = – 1 and P’(x) has
minima at x = 1 also lim
x 
32.
33.
P(0) is equal
(a) 7
P( x )
be a non zero finite real number..
x3
(b) 6
(c) 5
(d) 2
Distance between point of local maxima and local minima of P(x) is
(a)
65
(b) 2 65
(c) 4 65
(d) 5 65
Space For Rough Work
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2014-2015/ JEE Advance/ P-1/Pg-13
SECTION-IV
(Single integer type)
This section contains 7 questions. This answer to each question is single-digit integer, ranging from 0 to 9.
The correct digit below the question number in the ORS is to be bubbled.
34.
 r1   r1 
In a triangle 2R + r = r1 then  1  r  1  r  equal to (all symbols represent their standard meanings)

2 
3 
____________.
m
is _____________.
6
35.
The minimum value of |z|2 + |z – 3|2 + |z– 6i|2 is m the value of
36.
Let a and b be the roots of equation x2 – 10cx – 11d = 0 and those of x2 – 10ax – 11b = 0 are ‘c’ and
‘d’ then the value of when
37.
a bcd
(a  b  c  d) _____________________.
242
1 9 7 
Let a, b and c be three real numbers satisfying, [abc] 8 2 7   [0 0 0].....( E ) .
7 3 7 
If the point P(a, b, c), with reference to Eq. (E), lies on the plane 2x + y + z = 1,
then the value of 7a + b + c is _________________.
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2014-2015/ JEE Advance/ P-1/Pg-14
38.
Tangents are drawn to the circle x2 + y2 = r2 from point P (6 3, 6) touching the circle at A and B such that
area of PAB is maximum for ‘r’ is equal to ________________.
39.
The ratio of the area of a regular polygon of n sides inscribed in a circle to that of the polygon of same
number of sides circumscribing the same circle is 3 : 4. Then the value of n is __________.
40.
For any real number x, let [x] denote the largest integer less than or equal to x. Let f be a real valued
function defined in the internal [– 10, 10] by
 x  [ x ] if [ x] is odd
f ( x)  
1  [ x]  x if [ x] is even
10
1
then  {x} f ( x )dx is equal to, where {x} represent fractional part of x ?
5 10
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2014-2015/ JEE Advance/ P-1/Pg-15
PART-III : PHYSICS
SECTION-I
Single Correct Choice Type
This section contains 5 multiple choice questions. Each question has four choices (a), (b), (c) and (d) out of
which ONLY ONE is correct.
41.
42.
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2014-2015/ JEE Advance/ P-1/Pg-16
43.
44.
45.
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2014-2015/ JEE Advance/ P-1/Pg-17
SECTION-II
Multiple Correct Choice Type
This section contains 4 multiple choice questions. Each question has four choices (a), (b), (c) and (d) out
of which ONE ORE MORE is correct.
46.
47.
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2014-2015/ JEE Advance/ P-1/Pg-18
48.
49.
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2014-2015/ JEE Advance/ P-1/Pg-19
SECTION-III
(Paragraph type)
This section contains 2 paragraphs. Each paragraph has 2 multiple choice questions, each question has
four choices (a), (b), (c) and (d) out of which ONLY ONE is correct.
Paragraph for Q.no 50 & 51
50.
51.
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2014-2015/ JEE Advance/ P-1/Pg-20
Paragraph for Q.no 52 & 53
52.
53.
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2014-2015/ JEE Advance/ P-1/Pg-21
SECTION-IV
(Single integer type)
This section contains 7 questions. This answer to each question is single-digit integer, ranging from 0 to 9.
The correct digit below the question number in the ORS is to be bubbled.
54.
55.
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2014-2015/ JEE Advance/ P-1/Pg-22
56.
57.
58.
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2014-2015/ JEE Advance/ P-1/Pg-23
59.
60.
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2014-2015/ JEE Advance/ P-1/Pg-24
ABC Classes
A BRILLIANT COMPANION
JEE ADVANCE 2015
TARGET BATCH
CODE
003
TEST PAPER-1
ANSWERS
Date : 20-04-2015
CHEMISTRY
MATHEMATICS
PHYSICS
1.
C
21.
D
41. C
2.
B
22.
A
42. C
3.
D
23.
D
43. D
4.
A
24.
D
44. B
5.
C
25.
C
45. A
6.
ABCD
26.
ACD
46. ABC
7.
BCD
27.
BC
47. ABCD
8.
ABD
28.
BCD
48. ABD
9.
A
29.
AB
49. BD
10.
D
30.
B
50. C
11.
B
31.
C
51. A
12.
A
32.
C
52. D
13.
B
33.
B
53. C
14.
9
34.
2
54. 0
15.
4
35.
5
55. 1
16.
6
36.
5
56. 5
17.
3
37.
6
57. 7
18.
4
38.
6
58. 8
19.
4
39.
6
59. 4
20.
4
40.
5
60. 5
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