1. law, govt and politics
2. legal issues
3. civil law
4. copyright

Self Study IAS (selfstudyias.com)
Solutions-Full Length Sample Test 1
Number of questions: 100 Maximum Marks: 200 Time: 2 hours
This is a sample paper. To join the GS Prelims Mock Test Series (10 full length mock
tests @Rs 500), visit selfstudyias.com
1. With reference to ecosystem stability, consider the following statements:
1. A diverse and complex ecosystem is more stable.
2. Ecosystem stability increases with decrease in number of links in food web.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
a) 1 only
b) 2 only
c) Both 1 and 2
d) Neither 1 nor 2
Answer & Explanation
a) 1 only. Diversity increases the resilience of the system to outside invasions of
exotic organisms. So statement 1 is correct. A large number of interacting feeding
links provide alternative channels for energy flow and this generates a wide variety of
adjustments of population to environment changes and stresses within the ecosystem.
Therefore, ecosystem stability increases with INCREASE in number of links in food
web.
2. Raja Ram Mohan Roy was a central figure of the social and cultural awakening in
the first half of the 19th century. Which of these is/are correct about him?
1. he was opposed to worship of idols.
2. he was against monotheism.
3. he opposed the prevalence of meaningless rituals.
Select the correct answer using the codes given below.
a) 1 and 2 only
© Copyright selfstudyias.com * All right reserved * Contact: selfstudyias@gmail.com
+91-9471539767
Page 1
b) 1 and 3 only
c) 2 and 3 only
d) 1, 2 and 3
Answer & Explanation
b) 1 and 3 only. RRMR stood for the defence of monotheism. Roy’s monotheistic
ideas were formed as early as 1804, when he published his Persian tract Tuhfat’ ul
muhwahhiddin (A Gift to Monotheists). Roy’s study of the Upanishads had convinced
him that Hinduism taught the existence of a single God, or Absolute Reality and that
the development of the many deities, and of venerating their images, was a corruption
of originally monotheistic Hinduism.
3. Swine flu can be transmitted by
1. shaking hands with an infected person.
2. inhaling droplets of virus from sneeze of an infected person.
3. eating pork products.
Select the correct answer using the codes given below.
a) 1 and 2 only
b) 2 only
c) 2 and 3 only
d) 1 and 3 only
Answer & Explanation
b) 2 only. Swine flu is transmitted from person to person by inhalation or ingestion of
droplets containing virus from people sneezing or coughing; it is not transmitted by
eating cooked pork products or shaking hands with an infected person.
4. The jurisdiction of UPSC can be extended by –
a) Government via a resolution
b) President
c) Parliament
d) (b) or( c) depending on the type of extension.
Answer & Explanation
c) Parliament. The additional functions relating to the services of the Union can be
conferred on UPSC by the Parliament. It can also place the personnel system of any
authority, corporate body or public institution within the jurisdiction of the UPSC.
Hence the jurisdiction of UPSC can be extended by an act made by the Parliament
5. Receipts in budget can be capital or revenue. Which of these is/are capital receipts?
© Copyright selfstudyias.com * All right reserved * Contact: selfstudyias@gmail.com
+91-9471539767
Page 2
1. Loan recoveries
2. Provident funds deposits
3. Grants
Select the correct answer using the codes given below.
a) 1 and 2 only
b) 1 and 3 only
c) 2 and 3 only
d) 1, 2 and 3
Answer & Explanation
a) 1 and 2 only. Loan recoveries are the money, which the government had lent out in
past, their capital comes back to the government when the borrowers repay them as
capital receipts. long-term capital accruals to the government through the Provident
Fund (PF), Postal Deposits, various small saving schemes (SSSs) and the government
bonds sold to the public (as Indira Vikas Patra, Kisan Vikas Patra, Market
Stabilization Bond, etc.) are also capital receipts. Grants are revenue receipts.
6. The seismic weaves helps in understanding the interior of earth. Which of the
following about seismic waves is/are correct ?
1. P waves travel with fastest speed and are most destructive.
2. S waves cannot pass through liquid.
3. The surface waves (L) are analogous to light waves.
Select the correct answer using the codes given below.
a) 1 and 2 only
b) 2 only
c) 2 and 3 only
d) 1 and 3 only
Answer & Explanation
b) 2 only. Though P waves travel with fastest speed, they are not most destructive. L
waves are most violent and destructive. It’s the S waves that are analogous to light
waves because S waves are transverse in the nature and the particle moves at right
angles to the direction of propagation.
7. The brown haze dome formed in cities is because of which gas?
a) sulphur dioxide.
b) nitrogen oxide.
c) carbon dioxide.
d) volatile organic compounds (VOCs).
© Copyright selfstudyias.com * All right reserved * Contact: selfstudyias@gmail.com
+91-9471539767
Page 3
Answer & Explanation
b) nitrogen oxide. Nitrogen oxides (NOX), especially nitrogen dioxide, are emitted
from high temperature combustion and can be seen as the brown haze dome above or
plume downwind of cities. ( refer this link for more information –
http://www.rbcaa.org.za/about_air_pollution.html )
8. Which of the following is/are part of the biosphere?
1. water
2. soil
3. plants
Select the correct answer using the codes given below.
a) 1 and 2 only
b) 1 and 3 only
c) 3 only
d) 1, 2 and 3
Answer & Explanation
d) 1, 2 and 3. Many people mistakenly believe that biosphere only comprises of the
living components. But this is not true. Biosphere, relatively thin life-supporting
stratum of Earth’s surface, extending from a few kilometres into the atmosphere to the
deep-sea vents of the ocean. The biosphere is a global ecosystem composed of living
organisms (biotic) and the abiotic (nonliving) factors.
9. The British government sent the Cripps Mission in 1942 to:
a) provide for India’s independence.
b) secure cooperation of Indians in second world war.
c) help Indians frame a constitution.
d) none of the above
Answer & Explanation
b) secure cooperation of Indians in second world war. The Cripps mission was an
attempt in late March 1942 by the British government to secure full Indian
cooperation and support for their efforts in World War II. Cripps Mission promised to
give dominion status as well as elections to be held after the war.
10. With reference to Kalaripayattu, a martial art, consider the following statements:
1. It is practicised only by men.
2. It emphasises on the ability to strike at vital points.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
a) 1 only
© Copyright selfstudyias.com * All right reserved * Contact: selfstudyias@gmail.com
+91-9471539767
Page 4
b) 2 only
c) Both 1 and 2
d) Neither 1 nor 2
Answer & Explanation
b) 2 only. It is practiced by both men and women. Kalaripayattu, the martial art form
of Kerala is regarded as the oldest and most scientific of its kind in the world. Feats
like chaattom (jumping), ottam (running), marichil (somersault), use of weapons such
as daggers, swords, spears, maces, and ability to strike at vital points are taught.
11. Lifestyle diseases are associated with the way a person or group of people lives.
Which of the following is/are example/s of such diseases?
1. Cirrhosis
2. Malaria
3. Swimmer’s ear
4. TB
Select the correct answer using the codes given below.
a) 1 and 2 only
b) 1 and 3 only
c) 2 and 3 only
d) 1 and 4 only
Answer & Explanation
b) 1 and 3 only. Malaria and TB are not lifestyle disease. Swimmer’s ear is
inflammation, irritation, or infection of the outer ear and ear canal. Buzzing or ringing
ears, or difficulty in understanding speech patterns are its symptoms. Swimmer’s ears
results due to loud music and constant use of headphones. Cirrhosis refers to a group
of liver disorders. Heavy alcohol consumption can cause it.
12. Two layers of a cloth of equal thickness provide warmer covering than a single
layer of cloth with double the thickness. This is because
a) air gets encapsulated between the two layers.
b) effective thickness of two layers is more
c) air is a bad conductor of heat
d) both (a) and (c)
Answer & Explanation
d) both (a) and (c). Two layers of cloth of equal thickness enclose between them a
layer of air which is a bad conductor of heat and it prevents the heat of the body from
© Copyright selfstudyias.com * All right reserved * Contact: selfstudyias@gmail.com
+91-9471539767
Page 5
going out. On the other hand a single layer of double thickness is not able to provide
sufficient insulation.
13. With reference to Finance Commission (FC), consider the following statements :
1. As the FC is a constitutional body, its recommendations are binding on the
government.
2. The chairman of a FC is not eligible for reappointment.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct ?
a) 1 only
b) 2 only
c) Both 1 and 2
d) Neither 1 nor 2
Answer & Explanation
d) Neither 1 nor 2. The recommendations made by the Finance Commission are only
of advisory nature and hence, not binding on the government. It is up to the Union
government to implement its recommendations on granting money to the states.
Chairman of FC is eligible for re-appointment.
14. Which of these is/ are constitutional posts?
1. Special officer for linguistic minorities
2. Advocate general
3. Solicitor general
Select the correct answer using the codes given below.
a) 1 and 2 only
b) 1 and 3 only
c) 2 and 3 only
d) 1, 2 and 3
Answer & Explanation
a) 1 and 2 only. Special officer for linguistic minorities is provided for in article 350B. Advocate general of a state is provided under article 165. Solicitor general is not a
constitutional post. Article 76 provides only for attorney general and not solicitor
general.
15. If a government is unable to pass the budget in Lok Sabha, then:
a) a totally new budget is presented.
b) the budget is revised and presented again.
c) the government has to resign.
d) none of the above
© Copyright selfstudyias.com * All right reserved * Contact: selfstudyias@gmail.com
+91-9471539767
Page 6
Answer & Explanation
c) the government has to resign. This is an important point to be noted. Although,
UPSC has asked a question on this in 2011, it may still resurface as a part/statement in
a question.
16. With reference to contribution from taxes, consider the following statements:
1. Contribution from direct taxes is more than that from indirect taxes.
2. Corporation tax is the largest contributor.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct ?
a) 1 only
b) 2 only
c) Both 1 and 2
d) Neither 1 nor 2
Answer & Explanation
c) Both 1 and 2. Since 2007-08, the contribution of direct tax has been more than
indirect tax. Before this, the trend was opposite. Corporation tax is the largest
contributor among the taxes.
17. Consider the following statements :
1. A positive Southern Oscillation Index (SOI) indicates a good Indian monsoon.
2. A negative SOI is often seen in the El-Nino years.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct ?
a) 1 only
b) 2 only
c) Both 1 and 2
d) Neither 1 nor 2
Answer & Explanation
c) Both 1 and 2. The Southern Oscillation Index (SOI) is an index that is based on the
difference in air pressure between Darwin and Tahiti. The SOI is closely related to the
El Nino/La Nina climate phenomenon. A consistently negative SOI often indicates the
presence of an El Nino. A consistently positive SOI often indicates the presence of a
La Nina. This also indicates a good Indian monsoon.
18. Igneous rocks are also caused primary rock because
a) They are formed due to cooling and solidification of magna
b) They were the first rock to originate during formation of earth `s crust
c) All other rocks are subsequently formed from igneous rock
d) Both (b) and (c)
© Copyright selfstudyias.com * All right reserved * Contact: selfstudyias@gmail.com
+91-9471539767
Page 7
Answer & Explanation
d) Both (b) and (c). Although it’s true that igneous rocks are formed due to cooling
and solidification of magna, this however does not lead to it being called primary
rocks. Igneous rocks were the first rock to originate during formation of earth `s crust.
All other rocks are subsequently formed from igneous rock.
19. When acid rain falls on buildings made of marble, what is the final product that
flakes off easily?
a) calcium carbonate
b) gypsum
c) dolomite
d) epsom
Answer & Explanation
b) gypsum. The sulfuric acid ( in acid rain) reacts with limestone( or marble ) in a
neutralization reaction. . Limestone and marble buildings sometimes show blackened
crusts that have peeled off to reveal crumbling stone beneath it.This black crust is
called “gypsum”. Gypsum is a mineral that forms from the reaction between calcite,
water and sulfuric acid. Gypsum is soluable in water. It is usually washed away with
time. Limestone: CaCO3 + H2SO4—> CaSO4 (gypsum) + H2CO3
20. The development of vegetation community in any ecosystem is affected by:
1. sunlight
2. soil texture
3. relief
4. human
Select the correct answer using the codes given below.
a) 1, 2 and 3 only
b) 1 ,3 and 4 only
c) 2 ,3 and 4 only
d) 1 ,2, 3 and 4
Answer & Explanation
d) 1 ,2, 3 and 4. Straight forward question. Sunlight helps in photosynthesis, soil
provides minerals, water etc; relief helps in development of soil. Human activities can
alter or fully destroy a vegetation community.
21. The British had introduced the permanent settlement in many areas. Which of
these was a feature of permanent settlement?
1. fixed land revenue
© Copyright selfstudyias.com * All right reserved * Contact: selfstudyias@gmail.com
+91-9471539767
Page 8
2. non-transferable ownership of lands
3. cultivators reduced to the status of tenants
Select the correct answer using the codes given below.
a) 1 and 2 only
b) 1 and 3 only
c) 2 and 3 only
d) 1, 2 and 3
Answer & Explanation
b) 1 and 3 only. Under permanent settlement, zamindars and revenue collectors were
converted into landlords. Their right of ownership was made hereditary and
transferable. On the other hand the cultivators were reduced to the low status of mere
tenants and were deprived of long-standing rights to the soil and other customary
rights. The zamindars were to give 10/11th of the rental they derived from the
peasantry to the state, keeping only 1/11th for them. But the sums to be paid by them
as land revenue were fixed in perpetuity.
22. Which of these empowered the Constituent Assembly of India to frame and adopt
any constitution of its choice?
a) Cripps Mission
b) Dickie Bird Plan
c) Indian Independence Act, 1947
d) Cabinet Mission Plan
Answer & Explanation
c) Indian Independence Act, 1947. It empowered the Constituent Assemblies of India
and Pakistan to frame and adopt any constitution for their respective nations and to
repeal any act of the British Parliament, including the Independence act itself. Dickie
Bird Plan was mooted by Mountbatten in which he proposed that Indian provinces
would first become independent and then decide to whether they will join India or
Pakistan. It was rejected as it would lead to balkanization of India.
23. Formation of colors in a soap bubble is due to:
1. diffraction of light
2. interference of light
3. dispersion of light
Select the correct answer using the codes given below.
a) 1 and 2 only
b) 2 only
© Copyright selfstudyias.com * All right reserved * Contact: selfstudyias@gmail.com
+91-9471539767
Page 9
c) 2 and 3 only
d) 1 and 3 only
Answer & Explanation
b) 2 only. The beautiful spectrum of colors reflected from soap bubble are produced
by the interference of light waves. This phenomenon is often called iridescence and is
observed in transparent films. Diffraction and dispersion of light has no role to play
here.
24. The filament of electric bulb is generally made of tungsten because
1. tungsten has high light emitting power.
2. tungsten has high melting point.
3. tungsten is cheap compared to other similar elements.
Select the correct answer using the codes given below.
a) 1 and 2 only
b) 2 only
c) 2 and 3 only
d) 1 and 3 only
Answer & Explanation
b) 2 only. The filament of electric bulb is generally made of tungsten because it has
high melting point. The other two points about light emitting power and cheapness is
incorrect.
25. With reference to National Human Rights Commission (NHRC), consider the
following statements :
1. Only a retired Chief Justice of India can become chairman of NHRC.
2. The chairman can be reappointed.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct ?
a) 1 only
b) 2 only
c) Both 1 and 2
d) Neither 1 nor 2
Answer & Explanation
a) 1 only. Only a retired Chief Justice of India can become chairman of NHRC. After
their tenure, the chairman and members of NHRC are not eligible for further
employment under the Central or a state government
© Copyright selfstudyias.com * All right reserved * Contact: selfstudyias@gmail.com
+91-9471539767
Page 10
26. Consider the following statements:
1. The supreme court hears only those who petition or appeal in English.
2. The constitution has specified the official language of different states.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
a) 1 only
b) 2 only
c) Both 1 and 2
d) Neither 1 nor 2
Answer & Explanation
a) 1 only. The Supreme Court hears only those who petition or appeal in English. In
1971, a petitioner insisted on arguing in Hindi a habeas corpus petition in the Supreme
Court. But, the Court cancelled his petition on the ground that the language of the
Court was English and allowing Hindi would be unconstitutional. The constitution has
not specified the official language of different state and its left for the states to do so.
27. The Economic Survey is complied by:
a) Office of economic advisor.
b) Central Statistical office ( CSO )
c) National Sample Survey Organization (NSSO)
d) Department of economic affairs.
Answer & Explanation
d) Department of economic affairs. The Economic Survey is complied by Department
of economic affairs, Ministry of Finance. Office of economic advisor publishes WPI,
while CSO publishes IIP and CPI.
28. Gross capital formation will increase if:
1. gross domestic savings increases
2. gross domestic consumption increases
3. GDP increases
Select the correct answer using the codes given below.
a) 1 only
b) 1 and 2 only
c) 1 and 3 only
d) None
Answer & Explanation
d) None. Gross capital formation, in simple terms is equivalent to investment made. It
was earlier called gross domestic investment. The part of GDP that is used is called
© Copyright selfstudyias.com * All right reserved * Contact: selfstudyias@gmail.com
+91-9471539767
Page 11
gross domestic consumption, while the part that is saved is gross domestic savings
(GDS). Some part of this GDS will be re-invested back, and that is called gross capital
formation. Now, an increase in GDP or GDS will not necessarily lead to an increase in
capital formation. Because how much in invested back will depend on many other
factors.
29. The saline soils can be reclaimed by
1. providing good drainage.
2. applying lime or gypsum.
3. cultivating salt resistant crops.
Select the correct answer using the codes given below.
a) 1 and 2 only
b) 1 and 3 only
c) 2 and 3 only
d) 1, 2 and 3
Answer & Explanation
d) 1, 2 and 3. The saline soils can be reclaimed by providing good drainage, applying
lime or gypsum and cultivating salt resistant crops.
30. Generally saline lakes are found in semi-arid/ arid regions because
a) Large number of crustaceans make water salty.
b) Rate of evaporation is very high in these regions.
c) Both (a) and (b)
d) None
Answer & Explanation
b) Rate of evaporation is very high in these regions. The water gets evaporated thus
increasing the salt concentration in the remaining water. Crustaceans helps in
decreasing salinity.
31. Consider the following statements about Indian Council Acts, 1909 (also called
Morley Minto reforms):
1. it provided separate electorates for Muslims, Sikhs, Indian Christians and AngloIndians.
2. it introduced direct elections in the country for the first time.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
a) 1 only
b) 2 only
© Copyright selfstudyias.com * All right reserved * Contact: selfstudyias@gmail.com
+91-9471539767
Page 12
c) Both 1 and 2
d) Neither 1 nor 2
Answer & Explanation
d) Neither 1 nor 2. Both are features of the Government of India Act, 1919 also called
MontFord reforms. 1909 Act introduced separate electorates only for Muslims. This
was extended by the 1919 act to Sikhs, Indian Christians, Europeans and AngloIndians. GOI 1919 Act introduced direct elections in the country for the first time.
32. The national leadership got divided into no-changers and pro-changers after the
withdrawal of the non-cooperation movement. Who among the following was a nochanger?
a) C.R.Das
b) Sardar Patel
c) Motilal Nehru
d) both (a) and (c)
Answer & Explanation
b) Sardar Patel. The sudden withdrawal of the non-cooperation movement encouraged
an alternative political approach within the Congress. C.R. Das and Motilal Nehru
advocated that the Congress must give up its boycott of Legislative Councils. Once
elected to these Councils, Congressmen should obstruct their working from within and
bring out their shortcomings. They were known as Swarajists or ‘pro-changers’ and
those who opposed this change within Congress were termed as ‘no-changers’. Sardar
Patel was a no-changer.
33. Subsidiary alliance as a policy was extremely advantageous to the British because
it helped them in:
1. controlling defence and foreign relations of the Indian ally.
2. helping them fight the French onslaught.
3. maintaining large army at the cost of Indian states.
Select the correct answer using the codes given below.
a) 1 and 2 only
b) 1 and 3 only
c) 2 and 3 only
d) 1, 2 and 3
Answer & Explanation
d) 1, 2 and 3. The Subsidiary system helped the British East India company to
effectively counteract any possible French move in India. It enabled the company to
© Copyright selfstudyias.com * All right reserved * Contact: selfstudyias@gmail.com
+91-9471539767
Page 13
maintain a large army at the cost of Indian states. By signing a Subsidiary Alliance, an
Indian state virtually signed away its independence. It lost the right of self defenses, of
maintaining diplomatic relations, of employing foreign experts, and of setting its
disputes with its neighbors.
34. Artificial blood is a product made to act as a substitute for real blood. Which
component of the blood does an artificial blood mimic?
1. RBC
2. WBC
3. Platelet
Select the correct answer using the codes given below.
a) 1 only
b) 1 and 2 only
c) 2 and 3 only
d) 1, 2 and 3
Answer & Explanation
a) 1 only. Artificial blood is a product made to act as a substitute for red blood cells.
While true blood serves many different functions, artificial blood is designed for the
sole purpose of transporting oxygen and carbon dioxide throughout the body.
Currently, artificial blood products are only designed to replace the function of red
blood cells. It might even be better to call the products being developed now, oxygen
carriers instead of artificial blood.
35. With reference to tube-lights, consider the following statements :
1. It works on the principle of fluorescence to produce visible light.
2. White lime coating is done inside the tube to produce white light.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct ?
a) 1 only
b) 2 only
c) Both 1 and 2
d) Neither 1 nor 2
Answer & Explanation
a) 1 only. Phosphorous coating is done inside the tube to produce white light. To
produce light in the visible range, the inside of the tube is coated with a phosphor
powder. When the ultraviolet light ( generated by electrons from mercury atoms)
strikes the powder, it produces excitation of the electrons of the phosphor which then
produce visible light by a process called fluorescence. The central element in a
tubelight is a sealed glass tube. The tube contains a small bit of mercury and an inert
© Copyright selfstudyias.com * All right reserved * Contact: selfstudyias@gmail.com
+91-9471539767
Page 14
gas, typically argon, kept under very low pressure. The tube also contains a phosphor
powder, coated along the inside of the glass.
This is a sample paper. To join the GS Prelims Mock Test Series (10 full length mock
tests @Rs 500), visit selfstudyias.com
36. Fasting has been an essential component of lifestyle in India. During fasting, in
which order is the following energy sources used?
1. Proteins
2. Fats
3. Carbohydrates
a) 1 > 2 > 3
b) 1 > 3 > 2
c) 3 > 2 > 1
d) 3 > 1 > 2
Answer & Explanation
c) 3 > 2 > 1. The process is called ketosis. At the start, carbohydrates provide energy,
then fats come into the scene. Lastly, the energy is provided by protein.
37. The Indian constitution has defined which of the following?
1. Scheduled Castes
2. Scheduled Tribes
3. Anglo-Indians
Select the correct answer using the codes given below.
a) 1 and 2 only
b) 1 and 3 only
c) 3 only
d) 2 and 3 only
Answer & Explanation
c) 3 only. The Constitution does not specify the castes or tribes which are to be called
the SCs or the STs. It leaves to the President the power to specify as to what castes or
tribes in each state and union territory are to be treated as the SCs and STs. Thus, the
lists of the SCs or STs vary from state to state and union territory to union territory.
Unlike in the case of SCs and STs, the Constitution has defined the persons who
belong to the Anglo-Indian community. Accordingly, ‘an Anglo-Indian means a
person whose father or any of whose other male progenitors in the male line is or was
of European descent but who is domiciled within the territory of India and is or was
© Copyright selfstudyias.com * All right reserved * Contact: selfstudyias@gmail.com
+91-9471539767
Page 15
born within such territory of parents habitually resident therein and not established
there for temporary purposes only’.
38. A person can file a suit against which of the following
1. Union of India.
2. Union Government of India.
3. State Government of India.
Select the correct answer using the codes given below.
a) 1 only
b) 1 and 3 only
c) 2 and 3 only
d) 1, 2 and 3
Answer & Explanation
a) 1 only. Article 300 of the Constitution deals with the suits by or against the
Government in India. It lays down that the Government of India may sue or be sued
by the name of the Union of India and government of a state may sue or be sued by
the name of that state, eg, State of Andhra Pradesh or State of Uttar Pradesh and so on.
Thus, the Union of India and states are legal entities (juristic personalities) for
purposes of suits and proceedings, not the Government of the Union or government of
states.
39. With reference to defections, consider the following statements :
1. An independent member of lok sabha becomes disqualified if he joins any party
after 6 months from the date on which he take his seat.
2. A nominated member of lok sabha becomes disqualified if he joins any party
anytime.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct ?
a) 1 only
b) 2 only
c) Both 1 and 2
d) Neither 1 nor 2
Answer & Explanation
d) Neither 1 nor 2. Interchange both statements to get the correct one. A nominated
member of lok sabha becomes disqualified if he joins any party after 6 months from
the date on which he take his seat. If he joins before 6 months, then not disqualified.
An independent member of lok sabha becomes disqualified if he joins any party
anytime.
© Copyright selfstudyias.com * All right reserved * Contact: selfstudyias@gmail.com
+91-9471539767
Page 16
40. Consider the following statements:
1. The area recorded as forests in the government records is called forest cover.
2. A forest cover may or may not be a part of forest area.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct ?
a) 1 only
b) 2 only
c) Both 1 and 2
d) Neither 1 nor 2
Answer & Explanation
b) 2 only. The area recorded as forests in the government records is called forest area
not forest cover. Forest cover refers to all lands more than one hectare in area, with a
tree canopy density of more than 10 percent irrespective of ownership and legal status.
Such lands may not necessarily be a recorded forest area. It also includes orchards,
bamboo and palm.
41. Ecotone is best defined as:
a) the most extensive ecosystem unit which is convenient to designate.
b) the vegetation community developed at the last stage of biotic succession.
c) transition area between two biomes.
d) None of the above.
Answer & Explanation
c) transition area between two biomes. An ecotone is a transition area between two
biomes. It is where two communities meet and integrate. It may be narrow or wide,
and it may be local (the zone between a field and forest) or regional (the transition
between forest and grassland ecosystems). The most extensive ecosystem unit which
is convenient to designate is called biome. The vegetation community developed at
the last stage of biotic succession is called climax community.
42. Persistent organic pollutants (PoPs) are harmful for health and environment
because:
1. they are resistant to environmental degradation.
2. they can undergo bioaccumulation.
3. they can cause global warming.
Select the correct answer using the codes given below.
a) 1 and 2 only
b) 1 and 3 only
© Copyright selfstudyias.com * All right reserved * Contact: selfstudyias@gmail.com
+91-9471539767
Page 17
c) 2 and 3 only
d) 1, 2 and 3
Answer & Explanation
a) 1 and 2 only. PoPs do not cause global warming. Persistent Organic Pollutants
(POPs) are chemical substances that persist in the environment, bio-accumulate
through the food web, and pose a risk of causing adverse effects to human health and
the environment. The international community has called for urgent global actions to
reduce and eliminate releases of these chemicals, because they are : * Highly toxic to
humans and the environment * Persistent in the environment, resisting biodegradation * Taken up and bio-accumulated in terrestrial and aquatic ecosystems *
Capable of long-range, transboundary atmospheric transport and deposition.
43. Consider the following statements:
1. India’s GDP is more than its GNP.
2. Net Factor Income from Abroad (NFIA) is positive for India.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
a) 1 only
b) 2 only
c) Both 1 and 2
d) Neither 1 nor 2
Answer & Explanation
a) 1 only. GNP = GDP + NFIA. India’s NFIA is negative. Thus India’s GDP is more
than its GNP. NFIA = Factor income earned from abroad by residents – Factor income
of non-residents in domestic territory.
44. Integrated Child Development Services (ICDS) Scheme aims to provide many
services to children that includes:
1. school education
2. Nutrition support
3. Immunization
Select the correct answer using the codes given below.
a) 1 and 2 only
b) 1 and 3 only
c) 2 and 3 only
d) 1, 2 and 3
Answer & Explanation
© Copyright selfstudyias.com * All right reserved * Contact: selfstudyias@gmail.com
+91-9471539767
Page 18
c) 2 and 3 only. ICDS provides Supplementary nutrition, Immunization, Primary
healthcare (Health check-up, referral services.) and preschool education to children
under 6 years of age and their mothers.
45. Gross budgetary support means:
a) centre’s contribution to budget
b) expenditure in budget on social schemes
c) assistance provided by the Centre to five year plan.
d) none of the above
Answer & Explanation
c) assistance provided by the Centre to five year plan. The Government’s support to
the Central plan is called the Gross Budgetary Support. In the recent years the GBS
has been slightly more than 50% of the total Central Plan. The share of the GBS in
Central Plan has been rising since 2008-09.
46. With reference to plate margins, consider the following statements :
1. New oceanic crust is continuously formed at convergent plate margins.
2. At divergent plate margin crust is neither created nor destroyed.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct ?
a) 1 only
b) 2 only
c) Both 1 and 2
d) Neither 1 nor 2
Answer & Explanation
d) Neither 1 nor 2. New oceanic crust is continuously formed at divergent ( or
constructed ) plate margin because of continuous upwelling of lava. It is at
conservative plate margin that crusts is neither created nor destroy as two plate slides
pass each other.
47. The “land not available for cultivation” under land use categories includes
1. lands used for settlement.
2. barren lands like deserts.
3. fallow lands
4. grazing lands.
Select the correct answer using the codes given below.
a) 1 and 2 only
b) 1 and 3 only
© Copyright selfstudyias.com * All right reserved * Contact: selfstudyias@gmail.com
+91-9471539767
Page 19
c) 2 and 3 only
d) 1 and 4 only
Answer & Explanation
a) 1 and 2 only. Fallow lands are a separate category. Grazing lands are included
under the category of “other uncultivated lands”.
48. With reference to weathering, consider the following statements :
1. Weathering involves large-scale transport of weathered materials.
2. Weathering is a static process.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct ?
a) 1 only
b) 2 only
c) Both 1 and 2
d) Neither 1 nor 2
Answer & Explanation
b) 2 only. Weathering is a static process because the breakdown of rocks occurs at the
place of rocks (in-situ). There is no large scale transport of weathered materials except
mass movement down the slope under the force of gravity.
49. During the Delhi Sultanate, who among the following first started to pay his
soldiers fully in cash?
a) Balban
b) Illtutmish
c) Qutub-udin-Aibak
d) Allauddin Khilji
Answer & Explanation
d) Allauddin Khilji. Khilji was the first Sultan to have permanent army, paid soldiers
fully in cash, imported horses, detailed description of each soldier ( Chehra ) and each
horse ( Dagh ) was also kept.
50. With reference to Mathura School of art, consider the following statements:
1. It was influenced by the Greek arts.
2. Red sandstone was primarily used.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
a) 1 only
b) 2 only
© Copyright selfstudyias.com * All right reserved * Contact: selfstudyias@gmail.com
+91-9471539767
Page 20
c) Both 1 and 2
d) Neither 1 nor 2
Answer & Explanation
b) 2 only. Mathura School of art was primarily indigenous. It was the Gandhara
School of art that was influenced from the Greeks. The sculptures of Mathura deserve
recognition for creating the earliest, exclusively Indian representations of the Lord
Buddha. Mathura school of art draws inspiration from the ancient Indian arts of
Bharhut and Sanchi. The artists of Mathura used spotted red sandstone as the material
for making images and statues.
51. With reference to Regulating Act, 1773, Consider the following statements :
1. It completely subjected the activities of the East India Company to the supervision
of the British Government.
2. It established a board of control.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct ?
a) 1 only
b) 2 only
c) Both 1 and 2
d) Neither 1 nor 2
Answer & Explanation
d) Neither 1 nor 2. Board of control was established by Pitt’s India Act, 1784.
Regulating Act, 1773 only partially subjected the activities of the East India Company
to the supervision of the British Government. The main provisions of the act were the
appointment of a governor-general of Fort William in Bengal with supervisory powers
over the presidencies of Madras and Bombay. The governor-general had a council of
four and was given a casting vote but no veto.
52. AMOLED screens are now increasingly used in mobile phones. They offer the
following advantages
1. they use an organic electroluminescent material.
2. they can be viewed even in direct sunlight.
3. they have higher refresh rates that improves the quality of display.
Select the correct answer using the codes given below.
a) 1 and 2 only
b) 1 and 3 only
c) 2 and 3 only
d) 1, 2 and 3
© Copyright selfstudyias.com * All right reserved * Contact: selfstudyias@gmail.com
+91-9471539767
Page 21
Answer & Explanation
b) 1 and 3 only. AMOLED (active-matrix organic light-emitting diode) is a display
technology. In this, organic compounds form the electroluminescent material, and
active matrix refers to the technology behind the addressing of pixels. AMOLED
displays provide higher refresh rates than their passive-matrix OLED counterparts
improving response time often to under a millisecond, and they consume significantly
less power. However, AMOLED displays may be difficult to view in direct sunlight
compared with LCDs because of their reduced maximum brightness.
53. In robotics technology, the ‘actuator’ is used for
a) providing movement
b) balancing the robot
c) receive information about a certain measurement of the environment
d) None of the above
Answer & Explanation
a) providing movement. Actuators are like the “muscles” of a robot, the parts which
convert stored energy into movement. By far the most popular actuators are electric
motors that spin a wheel or gear, and linear actuators that control industrial robots in
factories.
54. Bluetooth and Wi-Fi are two standards for wireless communication. With respect
to the difference between the two, which of the following is/are correct?
1. Bluetooth is more secure than Wi-Fi.
2. While Bluetooth works at 2.45 GHz Wi-Fi works at 1.8 GHz.
3. Bluetooth consumes less power than Wi-Fi.
Select the correct answer using the codes given below.
a) 1 and 2 only
b) 1 and 3 only
c) 2 and 3 only
d) 3 only
Answer & Explanation
d) 3 only. Wi-Fi is more secure than Bluetooth. Unlike Wi-Fi, which uses wireless
access devices that connect clients, each Bluetooth device is an access point itself. The
potential for abuse is a lot greater for Bluetooth than for Wi-Fi, as every Bluetooth
device is a potential entry point to the local network. Wi-Fi works at 2.45 , 3.6 and 5
GHz frequencies, while Bluetooth works only at 2.45 GHz. Bluetooth consumes less
power than Wi-Fi.
© Copyright selfstudyias.com * All right reserved * Contact: selfstudyias@gmail.com
+91-9471539767
Page 22
55. In India, which of the following modes of voting take place
1. Direct voting by being present in person.
2. Voting through postal ballot.
3. Voting through a proxy.
Select the correct answer using the codes given below.
a) 1 and 2 only
b) 1 and 3 only
c) 2 and 3 only
d) 1, 2 and 3
Answer & Explanation
d) 1, 2 and 3. Direct voting by being present in person is valid for everybody. In 1999,
a provision was made for voting by certain classes of persons through postal ballot.
Thus, any class of persons can be notified by the Election Commission, in
consultation with the government, and the persons belonging to such notified class can
give their votes by postal ballot, and not in any other manner, at elections in their
constituency or constituencies. In 2003, the facility to opt to vote through proxy was
provided to the service voters belonging to the Armed Forces and members belonging
to a Force to which provisions of the Army Act apply.
56. Consider the following statements about delimitation commission:
1. Delimitation commission is neither a constitutional body nor a statutory body.
2. The orders issued by delimitation commission cannot be challenged in any court.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
a) 1 only
b) 2 only
c) Both 1 and 2
d) Neither 1 nor 2
Answer & Explanation
b) 2 only. Delimitation commission is a statutory body formed under Delimitation
commission act,1972 . The orders issued by delimitation commission cannot be
challenged in any court.
57. The Election Commission of India consists of Chief Election Commissioner
(CEC) and two election commissioners (EC). With regard to these two officials,
which of the following is/are correct?
1. CEC and EC receive equal salary.
2. CEC and EC are provided with security of tenure.
© Copyright selfstudyias.com * All right reserved * Contact: selfstudyias@gmail.com
+91-9471539767
Page 23
3. In case of difference of opinion amongst them, the view of CEC prevails.
Select the correct answer using the codes given below.
a) 1 only
b) 1 and 2 only
c) 1 and 3 only
d) 2 and 3 only
Answer & Explanation
a) 1 only. The chief election commissioner and the two other election commissioners
have equal powers and receive equal salary, allowances and other perquisites. In case
of difference of opinion amongst the Chief Election Commissioner and/or two other
election commissioners, the matter is decided by the Commission by majority. Only
the chief election commissioner is provided with the security of tenure. Election
commissioners can be removed from office on the recommendation of the chief
election commissioner.
58. Water in a wetland can be:
1. Fresh
2. Brackish
3. Static
Select the correct answer using the codes given below.
a) 1 and 2 only
b) 1 and 3 only
c) 2 and 3 only
d) 1, 2 and 3
Answer & Explanation
d) 1, 2 and 3. The Ramsar definition of wetlands is fairly wide, including “areas of
marine water the depth of which at low tide does not exceed six meters” as well as
fish ponds, rice paddies and salt pans. wetlands can be freshwater as well. Freshwater
wetlands are not connected to the ocean. They can be found along the boundaries of
streams, lakes, ponds or even in large shallow holes that fill up with rainwater.
Freshwater wetlands may stay wet all year long, or the water may evaporate during
the dry season.
59. Which of the following is responsible for maximum GHGs emission?
a) Industrial processes
b) Agriculture
c) Thermal power stations
d) Transportation fuels
© Copyright selfstudyias.com * All right reserved * Contact: selfstudyias@gmail.com
+91-9471539767
Page 24
Answer & Explanation
c) Thermal power stations. Thermal power stations > Industrial processes >
Agriculture > Transportation fuels is the order of emission of GHGs.
60. With reference to ecosystems, consider the following statements:
1. Organisms at higher trophic level receive energy from more than one trophic level.
2. Higher trophic levels tend to be more discrete than the lower ones.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
a) 1 only
b) 2 only
c) Both 1 and 2
d) Neither 1 nor 2
Answer & Explanation
a) 1 only. In an ecosystem, organisms at higher trophic level receive energy from
more than one trophic level. Further, higher trophic levels tend to be less discrete than
the lower ones as they have varied sources of food. They thus, tend to be ‘generalists’
in their feeding habits.
61. Consider the following data:
1. Revenue deficit (RD) = 3% of GDP |
2. Grants for capital formation = 1.8% of GDP
3. Primary deficit (PD) = 1.2%
4. Non-plan expenditure = 1.5%
In the above scenario, effective revenue deficit (ERD) will be:
a) 1.2%
b) 1.5%
c) 1.8%
d) cannot be calculated
Answer & Explanation
a) 1.2%. ERD = RD – Grants for capital formation. Therefore, here ERD = 3% – 1.8%
= 1.2%. The rest two data about primary deficit and non-plan expenditure is not
needed to calculate ERD. Effective Revenue was first introduced in the Union Budget
2011-12. While revenue deficit is the difference between revenue receipts and revenue
expenditure, this accounting system includes all grants from the Union Government to
the state governments as revenue expenditure, even if they are used to create assets.
Such revenue expenditures contribute to the growth in the economy and therefore,
should not be treated as unproductive in nature.
© Copyright selfstudyias.com * All right reserved * Contact: selfstudyias@gmail.com
+91-9471539767
Page 25
This is a sample paper. To join the GS Prelims Mock Test Series (10 full length mock
tests @Rs 500), visit selfstudyias.com
62. Which of the following interest rates is still regulated?
1. Savings account interest rate
2. Fixed deposit interest rate
3. Current account interest rate
Select the correct answer using the codes given below.
a) 1 only
b) 1 and 2 only
c) 3 only
d) None
Answer & Explanation
d) None. All the interest rates in India have been deregulated. The last one was
savings interest rate which was deregulated in 2011.
63. Fiscal consolidation is one of the objectives of India’s economic policy. Which of
the following would help in fiscal consolidation ?
1. increasing taxes
2. getting more loans
3. reducing subsidies
Select the correct answer using the codes given below.
a) 1 and 2 only
b) 1 and 3 only
c) 2 and 3 only
d) 1, 2 and 3
Answer & Explanation
b) 1 and 3 only. Fiscal consolidation is a reduction in the underlying fiscal deficit. So,
by increasing revenues and decreasing expenditure, we can undertake fiscal
consolidation. While getting more loans may increase receipts, it will not help in fiscal
consolidation as that loan has to be repaid back along with interest. So loans add more
to the expenditure than it contributes to receipts. Increasing taxes and reducing
subsidies will ofcourse increase revenues and decrease expenditure respectively
contributing to fiscal consolidation.
64. Which of these pairs about rivers and their tributaries are correctly matched ?
1. Purna : Narmada
2. Tungabhadra : Godavari
© Copyright selfstudyias.com * All right reserved * Contact: selfstudyias@gmail.com
+91-9471539767
Page 26
3. Betwa : Yamuna
Select the correct answer using the codes given below.
a) 1 only
b) 1 and 3 only
c) 3 only
d) 2 and 3 only
Answer & Explanation
c) 3 only. Purna is a tributary of river Tapi. The Purna River is a river of Western
India. It is one of the chief tributaries of Tapti river and empties in it at Changdev in
Jalgaon, Maharashta. Tungabhadra is Krishna’s tributary. The Tungabhadra River is a
river in southern India that starts and flows through the state of Karnataka, before
flowing along the border between Karnataka and Andhra Pradesh and ultimately
joining the Krishna River along the border of Andhra Pradesh and Telangana.
65. The products from forests are classified as major and minor. Which of the
following is/are MAJOR forest produce?
1. Wood
2. Bamboo
3. Tendu Leaves
Select the correct answer using the codes given below.
a) 1 only
b) 1 and 2 only
c) 3 only
d) None
Answer & Explanation
a) 1 only. Bamboo and tendu leaves are minor forest produce. Only Wood (timber) is
a major forest product. All other products are minor. Minor forest products include all
products obtainable from the forests other than wood and thus comprise products of
vegetable and animal origin
66. Erosion in coastal areas forms different types of landform. Which of the following
is/are erosional landform of coastal areas?
1. wave-cut platforms
2. Beaches
3. Capes and bays
Select the correct answer using the codes given below.
a) 1 and 2 only
© Copyright selfstudyias.com * All right reserved * Contact: selfstudyias@gmail.com
+91-9471539767
Page 27
b) 1 and 3 only
c) 2 and 3 only
d) 1, 2 and 3
Answer & Explanation
b) 1 and 3 only. Beaches in coastal areas are a depositional landform and not
erosional. A wave-cut platform is the narrow flat area often found at the base of a sea
cliff. They along with capes and bays are erosional landform.
67. Various events of Buddha’s life are represented by different objects. Which of the
following pairs is/are correctly matched ?
1. Buddha’s birth : Lotus
2. First Sermon : Wheel
3. Death : Bodhi Tree
Select the correct answer using the codes given below.
a) 1 and 2 only
b) 1 and 3 only
c) 2 and 3 only
d) 1,2 and 3.
Answer & Explanation
a) 1 and 2 only. Buddha’s birth which is symbolized by a lotus.
Dhammachakraparivartan – This was Buddha giving his first sermon in Deer Park
close to Varanasi. This is symbolized by a wheel. Mahaparinirvana – Buddha’s death.
This is symbolized by a stupa.
68. Consider the following statements :
1. Ghadar revolutionists recognized Lala Hardayal as their leader to organize the
revolt in India
2. Ghadar movement remained largely unorganized.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct ?
a) 1 only
b) 2 only
c) Both 1 and 2
d) Neither 1 nor 2
Answer & Explanation
b) 2 only. Ghadar revolutionists recognized Rash Behari Bose as their leader to
organize the revolt in India.Rash Behari Bose played a crucial role in the Ghadar
© Copyright selfstudyias.com * All right reserved * Contact: selfstudyias@gmail.com
+91-9471539767
Page 28
Revolution, a plan to attack British army from the inside. Lala Hardayal was its leader
in San Francisco.
69. Which of the following opposed the Simon Commission ?
1. moderate nationalists
2. extremist nationalists
3. Muslim league
Select the correct answer using the codes given below.
a) 1 and 2 only
b) 1 and 3 only
c) 2 and 3 only
d) 1, 2 and 3
Answer & Explanation
d) 1, 2 and 3. Congress, both moderates and extremists decided to boycott the
Commission “at every stage and in every form”. The Muslim League and the Hindu
Mahasabha decided to support the Congress decision. In fact, the Simon Commission
united, at least temporarily, different groups and parties in the country.
70. The French failed compared to British in India. This was because of :
1. French company was subjected to excessive government control.
2. French did not possess great naval power like the British
3. French officers were corrupt, while British officers were honest.
Select the correct answer using the codes given below.
a) 1 and 2 only
b) 1 and 3 only
c) 2 and 3 only
d) 1, 2 and 3
Answer & Explanation
a) 1 and 2 only. British officers were also corrupt. Infact, some sources mention that
they were even more corrupt than French. Thus corruption was not the reason for
French failure. Unlike the English East India Company, the French East India
Company was a State concern, depending for anything and everything on the home
government its freedom of action was very much limited by the charter and the whims
and fancies of the rulers.
71. With reference to induced pluripotent stem cells (iPSCs), consider the following
statements :
1. They are originally embryonic stem cells.
© Copyright selfstudyias.com * All right reserved * Contact: selfstudyias@gmail.com
+91-9471539767
Page 29
2. Tissues derived from iPSCs can avoid rejection by the immune system.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
a) 1 only
b) 2 only
c) Both 1 and 2
d) Neither 1 nor 2
Answer & Explanation
b) 2 only. iPSCs are originally adult cells. Induced pluripotent stem cells (iPSCs) are
adult cells that have been genetically reprogrammed to an embryonic stem cell–like
state by being forced to express genes and factors important for maintaining the
defining properties of embryonic stem cells. Tissues derived from iPSCs will be a
nearly identical match to the cell donor and thus probably avoid rejection by the
immune system.
72. Water disinfectants used to kill or deactivate pathogenic microorganisms. Which
among the following can be used as a disinfectant?
1. Chlorine
2. Hydrogen peroxide
3. Ultraviolet rays
Select the correct answer using the codes given below.
a) 1 and 2 only
b) 1 and 3 only
c) 2 and 3 only
d) 1, 2 and 3
Answer & Explanation
d) 1, 2 and 3. Chlorine is one of the most widely used disinfectants. It is very
applicable and very effective for the deactivation of pathogenic microorganisms.
Chlorine can be easily applied, measured and controlled. Is is fairly persistent and
relatively cheap. The disinfection mechanism of hydrogen peroxide is based on the
release of free oxygen radicals: H2O2 → H2O + O2. UV as a disinfectant has many
advantages – UV does not alter taste, odour, colour or pH of the water – UV does not
require the addition of chemicals – UV does not impart toxic by-products into the
water – UV systems are compact and easy to install – UV systems require very little
maintenance.
73. Consider the following statements about additive manufacturing:
1. In this, an object is created by laying down successive layers of material until the
entire object is created.
© Copyright selfstudyias.com * All right reserved * Contact: selfstudyias@gmail.com
+91-9471539767
Page 30
2. It can be used in reconstructing heavily damaged evidence acquired from crime
scene investigations.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct ?
a) 1 only
b) 2 only
c) Both 1 and 2
d) Neither 1 nor 2
Answer & Explanation
c) Both 1 and 2. Additive manufacturing is just the other name of 3D printing. It is a
process of making three dimensional solid objects from a digital file. In an additive
process an object is created by laying down successive layers of material until the
entire object is created. Each of these layers can be seen as a thinly sliced horizontal
cross-section of the eventual object. Applications include design visualization,
prototyping/CAD, metal casting, architecture, education, geospatial, healthcare and
entertainment/retail. Other applications would include reconstructing fossils in
paleontology, replicating ancient and priceless artifacts in archaeology, reconstructing
bones and body parts in forensic pathology and reconstructing heavily damaged
evidence acquired from crime scene investigations.
74. Kessler syndrome is
a) a disease in which the number of chromosomes in human body increases.
b) is a condition in which there is hypersecrition of insulin.
c) collisional cascading effect in low earth orbits.
d) a rare eye condition in which eye balls move involuntarily.
Answer & Explanation
c) collisional cascading effect in low earth orbits. Kessler Syndrome is not related to
any disease of the human body. It is related to possible collision of objects in low
earth orbit. The Kessler Syndrome is a theory proposed by NASA scientist Donald J.
Kessler in 1978, used to describe a self-sustaining cascading collision of space debris
in LEO. It’s the idea that two colliding objects in space generate more debris that then
collides with other objects, creating even more shrapnel and litter until the entirety of
LEO is an impassable array of super swift stuff. At that point, any entering satellite
would face unprecedented risks of headfirst bombardment.
75. Suppose Bihar legislative assembly passes a bill and forwards it to legislative
council which rejects it. What happens to the bill then ?
a) a joint sitting is called for by the Governor.
b) the bill ends and become dead.
© Copyright selfstudyias.com * All right reserved * Contact: selfstudyias@gmail.com
+91-9471539767
Page 31
c) legislative assembly can pass the bill second time to override legislative council.
d) (a) or (c) depending on the type of bill.
Answer & Explanation
c) legislative assembly can pass the bill second time to override legislative council.
The Constitution does not provide for the mechanism of joint sitting of two Houses
of the state legislature to resolve a deadlock between them over the passage of a bill.
The legislative assembly can override the legislative council by passing the bill for
the second time. Therefore the final power of passing an ordinary bill lies with the
assembly. At the most, the council can detain or delay the bill for the period of four
months.
76. The original jurisdiction of the High Court includes:
1. disputes related to the election of MPs
2. disputes related to the election of MLAs
3. cases related to murder
Select the correct answer using the codes given below.
a) 1 and 2 only
b) 2 only
c) 2 and 3 only
d) 1, 2 and 3
Answer & Explanation
a) 1 and 2 only. Original jurisdiction means the power of a high court to hear disputes
in the first instance, not by way of appeal. High courts do not have any original
criminal jurisdiction and thus cases related to murders can be taken to High court only
as appeal. The original jurisdiction includes – (a) Matters of admirality, will, marriage,
divorce, company laws and contempt of court. (b) Disputes relating to the election of
members of Parliament and state legislatures. (c) Regarding revenue matter or an act
ordered or done in revenue collection. (d) Enforcement of fundamental rights of
citizens. (e) Cases ordered to be transferred from a subordinate court involving the
interpretation of the Constitution to its own file.
77. With reference to Vice-President of India ,consider the following statements :
1. If the Vice-President suddenly resigns, then election to fill the vacancy
should be held within six months.
2. A Vice-President can be removed on the grounds of violation of constitution.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct ?
a) 1 only
b) 2 only
© Copyright selfstudyias.com * All right reserved * Contact: selfstudyias@gmail.com
+91-9471539767
Page 32
c) Both 1 and 2
d) Neither 1 nor 2
Answer & Explanation
d) Neither 1 nor 2. Both the statements are true for President and not VP. If the VicePresident suddenly resigns, then election to fill the vacancy should be held as soon as
possible. The constitution mentions no ground for removal of VP.
78. In India, the council of ministers have:
1. Individual responsibility
2. legal responsibility
3. collective responsibility
Select the correct answer using the codes given below.
a) 1 and 3 only
b) 2 and 3 only
c) 3 only
d) 1, 2 and 3
Answer & Explanation
a) 1 and 3 only. The council of ministers is collectively responsible to the Lok Sabha.
This means that all the ministers own joint responsibility to the Lok Sabha for all their
acts of ommission and commission. Article 75 contains the principle of individual
responsibility. It states that the ministers hold office during the pleasure of the
president. In India there is no provision in the Constitution for the system of legal
responsibility of a minister. It is not required that an order of the President for a public
act should be countersigned by a minister.
79. Which of the following are required for the formation of Ground-level ozone (
GLO) ?
1. Carbon dioxide
2. Volatile Organic Compounds
3. Sunlight
Select the correct answer using the codes given below.
a) 1 and 2 only
b) 1 and 3 only
c) 2 and 3 only
d) 1, 2 and 3
Answer & Explanation
© Copyright selfstudyias.com * All right reserved * Contact: selfstudyias@gmail.com
+91-9471539767
Page 33
c) 2 and 3 only. Ground-level ozone is a colorless and highly irritating gas that forms
just above the earth’s surface. Ground level or “bad” ozone is created by chemical
reactions between oxides of nitrogen (NOx) and volatile organic compounds (VOC) in
the presence of sunlight. Emissions from industrial facilities and electric utilities,
motor vehicle exhaust, gasoline vapors, and chemical solvents are some of the major
sources of NOx and VOC.
80. For creation of which of these, a legislation is required ?
1. National Parks
2. Wildlife Sanctuaries
3. Biosphere Reserves
Select the correct answer using the codes given below.
a) 1 only
b) 1 and 2 only
c) 1 and 3 only
d) 2 and 3 only
Answer & Explanation
b) 1 and 2 only. Both National Parks and Wildlife Sanctuaries are created under the
Wildlife (Protection ) Act, 1972. The Act provides for four type of protected areas viz.
Wildlife Sanctuaries, National Parks, Conservation Reserves and Community
Reserves. The boundaries of the all 4 kinds of Protected Areas are notified by
legislation. Biosphere Reserves can be created by notification and do not require a
legislation.
81. The Montreal Protocol on Substances that Deplete the Ozone Layer aims to
control the production and use of :
1. Dichloromethane
2. CFCs
3. HFCs
Select the correct answer using the codes given below.
a) 1 and 2 only
b) 2 only
c) 2 and 3 only
d) 1,2 and 3
Answer & Explanation
b) 2 only. Montreal protocol aims to phase out several groups of halogenated
hydrocarbons that have been shown to play a role in ozone depletion. All of these
ozone depleting substances contain either chlorine or bromine (substances containing
© Copyright selfstudyias.com * All right reserved * Contact: selfstudyias@gmail.com
+91-9471539767
Page 34
only fluorine do not harm the ozone layer). These include CFCs and HCFCs. HFCs
replaced CFCs and HCFCs. HFCs pose no harm to the ozone layer because, unlike
CFCs and HCFCs, they do not contain chlorine. The Montreal Protocol therefore does
not address HFCs. But HFCs cause global warming. Dichloromethane is a new entry
among gases that depletes ozone layer, but at present it has not been included under
Montreal Protocol.
82. Endosulphan has been banned under the Stockholm Convention because:
a) it depletes ozone
b) it causes global warming
c) it is an endocrine disruptor
d) none of the above
Answer & Explanation
c) it is an endocrine disruptor. Endosulfan is an off-patent organochlorine insecticide
and acaricide that is being phased out globally. Endosulfan became a highly
controversial agrichemical due to its acute toxicity, potential for bioaccumulation, and
role as an endocrine disruptor.
83. With reference to pulses, consider the following statements :
1. India is the largest producer of pulses.
2. India imports pulses to meet its domestic demand.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct ?
a) 1 only
b) 2 only
c) Both 1 and 2
d) Neither 1 nor 2
Answer & Explanation
c) Both 1 and 2. India is the world’s largest producer and consumer of pulses. It
imports about 3.5 million tonnes of pulses every year from the U.S., Australia,
Myanmar, East Africa and Ukraine, besides Canada to meet its domestic demand.
84. The government provides subsidies in various sectors. Which of the following are
the effects of subsidies ?
1. it increases inflation
2. it increases fiscal deficit
3. it decreases export competitiveness
Select the correct answer using the codes given below.
a) 1 and 2 only
© Copyright selfstudyias.com * All right reserved * Contact: selfstudyias@gmail.com
+91-9471539767
Page 35
b) 2 only
c) 2 and 3 only
d) 1,2 and 3
Answer & Explanation
b) 2 only. There is no direct relation between subsidies given and inflation. It may
increase inflation ( eg. subsidies on LPG helping people save more thus increasing
their capacity which can cause demand pull inflation. ) or decrease inflation by
making accessible low cost subsidized goods. Subsidies ofcourse increases fiscal
deficit. Subsidies INCREASES not decreases export competitiveness of goods as it
decreases their cost of production.
85. The Fiscal Responsibility and Budget Management (FRBM) Act aimed for
1. eliminating both revenue deficit and fiscal deficit
2. giving flexibility to RBI for inflation management
Which of the statements given above is/are correct ?
a) 1 only
b) 2 only
c) Both 1 and 2
d) Neither 1 nor 2
Answer & Explanation
b) 2 only. FRBM Act had the objective of ensuring prudence in fiscal management by
eliminating revenue deficit, REDUCING ( and not eliminating ) fiscal deficit,
establishing improved debt management and improving transparency in a medium
term framework with quantitative targets to be adhered by the state with regard to
deficit measures and debt management. The act was also expected to give necessary
flexibility to Reserve Bank of India(RBI) for managing inflation in India.
86. With reference to deficit financing, monetized deficit is the part that is financed
through
a) borrowings from public sector scheduled commercial banks
b) external commercial borrowings
c) borrowings from RBI
d) none of the above
Answer & Explanation
c) borrowings from RBI. Monetized deficit indicates the level of support extended by
the Reserve Bank of India to the government’s borrowing programme. Since
borrowings from Reserve Bank of India directly add to money supply, this measure is
© Copyright selfstudyias.com * All right reserved * Contact: selfstudyias@gmail.com
+91-9471539767
Page 36
termed monetized deficit. It is obvious that monetized deficit is only a part of fiscal
deficit.
87. With reference to ownership of forests in India, consider the following statements:
1. Most of the forests are owned by corporate bodies.
2. A negligible portion of less than one percent is privately owned.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
a) 1 only
b) 2 only
c) Both 1 and 2
d) Neither 1 nor 2
Answer & Explanation
b) 2 only. Most of the forests are owned by Government through various departments
such as forest department. Corporate owned forests are lesser than government owned.
A negligible portion of less than one percent is privately owned.
88. Latitude is the angular distance of a point on earth’s surface measured from the:
a) equator
b) prime meridian
c) centre of earth
d) poles
Answer & Explanation
c) centre of earth. Latitude is the angular distance of a point on earth’s surface
measured from the centre of earth. It specifies the north-south position of a point on
the Earth’s surface. Latitude is an angle which ranges from 0° at the Equator to 90°
(North or South) at the poles.
89. Some areas in India receive very high annual rainfall of more than 200 cm. These
include:
1. major parts of Assam.
2. West coast from Thiruvananthapuram to Mumbai.
3. Ladakh region of Jammu Kashmir.
Select the correct answer using the codes given below.
a) 1 and 2 only
b) 1 and 3 only
c) 2 and 3 only
d) 1, 2 and 3
© Copyright selfstudyias.com * All right reserved * Contact: selfstudyias@gmail.com
+91-9471539767
Page 37
Answer & Explanation
a) 1 and 2 only. Easy one. Ladkah region receives very low rainfall and is an example
of cold desert.
90. River rejuvenation can occur due to:
1. uplift of land over which the river is flowing.
2. rise in sea-level.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
a) 1 only
b) 2 only
c) Both 1 and 2
d) Neither 1 nor 2
Answer & Explanation
a) 1 only. River rejuvenation involves a renewed period of vertical erosion to achieve
a new and lower base level. Rejuvenation occurs when the river’s base level falls (i.e.
when sea level falls). This can be a consequence of either a fall in the amount of sea
water or the land rising. Uplift of land over which the river is flowing steepens the
slope so that active down cutting is renewed. A fall in sea-level (and not rise ) causes
river rejuvenation. A fall in sea level leaves the flood plain at an increased altitude
above the sea level. The river with its renewed vigour cuts into the former flood plain,
leaving behind terraces on both sides of the river.
91. Consider the following statements regarding Illbert bill :
1. It was strongly opposed by the Indians.
2. It violated the principle of natural justice.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct ?
a) 1 only
b) 2 only
c) Both 1 and 2
d) Neither 1 nor 2
Answer & Explanation
d) Neither 1 nor 2. It was Rowlatt act that violated the principle of natural justice and
thus Indians opposed it. Illbert bill allowed Indian judges to try the cases involving the
Europeans. Immediately, the whole European community began an agitation to
oppose the bill.
92. The famous Madhubani paintings have their own unique features. Which among
the following are features of Madhubani paintings ?
© Copyright selfstudyias.com * All right reserved * Contact: selfstudyias@gmail.com
+91-9471539767
Page 38
1. use of natural dyes and pigments
2. three dimensional effect
3. depiction of themes like birth, marriage and festivals.
Select the correct answer using the codes given below.
a) 1 and 2 only
b) 1 and 3 only
c) 2 and 3 only
d) 1, 2 and 3
Answer & Explanation
b) 1 and 3 only. It was Mughal paintings that had three dimensional effects. In
madhubani paintings, the artists prepared the colors that are used for the paintings.
Black color is made by adding soot to cow dung; yellow from combining turmeric (or
pollen or lime) with the milk of banyan leaves; blue from indigo; red from the kusam
flower juice or red sandalwood; green from the leaves of the wood apple tree; white
from rice powder and orange from palasha flowers.
93. Touchscreen mobile phones have become common these days. In this respect,
which of the following is/are correct?
1. Resistive touchscreen are quick to respond compared to a capacitive touchscreen.
2. Resistive touchscreen are expensive compared to a capacitive touchscreen.
3. Resistive touchscreen allow for multi-touch gestures such as pinch to zoom.
Select the correct answer using the codes given below.
a) 1 and 2 only
b) 2 only
c) 2 and 3 only
d) None
Answer & Explanation
d) None. Resistive touchscreen require slight pressure in order to register the touch,
and are not always as quick to respond as capacitive touchscreens such as the
iPhone’s. Resistive screens don’t allow for multi-touch gestures such as pinch to
zoom, although they can register a touch by one finger when another finger is already
touching a different location on the screen. As expected Capacitive touchscreens are
expensive.
94. Reusing cooking oil is unhealthy because
a) bacteria feeds on food particles left in the oil and can cause food poisoning.
b) reused oil contains free radicals that can damage cells and lead to increased cancer
© Copyright selfstudyias.com * All right reserved * Contact: selfstudyias@gmail.com
+91-9471539767
Page 39
risk
c) both (a) and (b)
d) None of the above
Answer & Explanation
c) both (a) and (b). In a used oil bacteria feeds on food particles left in the oil. These
often lead to the growth of Clostridium botulinum, which causes botulism, a
potentially fatal food poisoning. Used oil contains free radicals, molecules that can
damage cells and lead to increased cancer risk, as well as affect the quality of your
food.
95. The Union executive of India consists of :
1. President
2. Vice-President
3. Prime Minister
4. Council of Ministers
Select the correct answer using the codes given below.
a) 1, 2 and 3 only
b) 1 ,3 and 4 only
c) 2 ,3 and 4 only
d) 1 ,2, 3 and 4
Answer & Explanation
d) 1 ,2, 3 and 4. All four are the parts of the union executive of India. Some of you
might have excluded VP, but please remember the VP is also a part of union
executive.
96. With reference to removal of chairman of a state public service commission,
consider the following statements :
1. they can be removed for misbehaviour.
2. they can be removed only by the President.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct ?
a) 1 only
b) 2 only
c) Both 1 and 2
d) Neither 1 nor 2
Answer & Explanation
c) Both 1 and 2. Although the chairman of a SPSC are appointed by the governor, they
can be removed only by the president (and not by the governor). They can be removed
© Copyright selfstudyias.com * All right reserved * Contact: selfstudyias@gmail.com
+91-9471539767
Page 40
on the grounds of misbehaviour. The Constitution states that the chairman or any other
member of a SPSC is deemed to be guilty of misbehaviour, if he (a) is concerned or
interested in any contract or agreement made by the Government of India or the
government of a state, or (b) participates in any way in the profit of such contract or
agreement or in any benefit therefrom otherwise than as a member and in common
with other members of an incorporated company.
97. Consider the following statements about jet streams:
1. Easterly jet stream blows over the northern Indian region in winter.
2. The easterly jet stream is replaced by the westerly jet stream during summer.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
a) 1 only
b) 2 only
c) Both 1 and 2
d) Neither 1 nor 2
Answer & Explanation
d) Neither 1 nor 2. Westerly jet stream blows over the northern Indian region in
winter. The westerly jet stream is replaced by the easterly jet stream during summer.
This helps in the onset of monsoon.
98. The movement of ocean currents is influenced by many factors which include:
1. temperature
2. salinity
3. earth’s rotation
Select the correct answer using the codes given below.
a) 1 and 2 only
b) 1 and 3 only
c) 2 and 3 only
d) 1, 2 and 3
Answer & Explanation
d) 1, 2 and 3. All the above factors affect ocean current. The ocean currents are
generated from the forces acting upon the water like the earth’s rotation, the wind, the
temperature and salinity differences and the gravitation of the moon.
99. All banks are mandated to lend to priority sector. Which of the following would
come under Priority Sector Lending ( PSL ) ?
© Copyright selfstudyias.com * All right reserved * Contact: selfstudyias@gmail.com
+91-9471539767
Page 41
1. loans to corporations
2. loans to Self Help Groups
3. loans to small and marginal farmers
4. loans to state government
Select the correct answer using the codes given below.
a) 1 and 2 only
b) 1 and 3 only
c) 2 and 3 only
d) 2,3 and 4 only
Answer & Explanation
c) 2 and 3 only. Priority sector refers to those sectors of the economy which may not
get timely and adequate credit in the absence of this special dispensation. Typically,
these are small value loans to farmers for agriculture and allied activities, micro and
small enterprises, poor people for housing, students for education and other low
income groups and weaker sections. So, loans to corporations and state government
does not come under PSL.
100. Consider the following statements about Index of Industrial Production ( IIP )
1. It is released monthly by Central Statistical Organisation ( CSO )
2. It shows the volume of industrial activity.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct ?
a) 1 only
b) 2 only
c) Both 1 and 2
d) Neither 1 nor 2
Answer & Explanation
a) 1 only. IIP or the index of industrial production is the number denoting the
condition of industrial production during a certain period ( month for eg. ). It does not
show the volume of industrial activity but only its growth with respect to a reference
period. As IIP shows the status of industrial activity, one can find out if the industrial
activity has increased, decreased or remained same.
This is a sample paper. To join the GS Prelims Mock Test Series (10 full length mock
tests @Rs 500), visit selfstudyias.com
© Copyright selfstudyias.com * All right reserved * Contact: selfstudyias@gmail.com
+91-9471539767
Page 42
© Copyright selfstudyias.com * All right reserved * Contact: selfstudyias@gmail.com
+91-9471539767
Page 43